ITExamDump 의 학습가이드에는 인증시험의 예상문제와 기출문제가 포함되어있습니다.: 9월 2013

2013년 9월 30일 월요일

Juniper JN0-360 덤프

Juniper인증 JN0-360시험을 패스하여 자격증을 취득하시면 찬란한 미래가 찾아올것입니다. Juniper인증 JN0-360인증시험을 패스하여 취득한 자격증은 IT인사로서의 능력을 증명해주며 IT업계에 종사하는 일원으로서의 자존심입니다. ITExamDump 의 Juniper인증 JN0-360덤프는 시험패스에 초점을 맞추어 제일 간단한 방법으로 시험을 패스하도록 밀어주는 시험공부가이드입니다.구매전Juniper인증 JN0-360무료샘플을 다운받아 적성에 맞는지 확인하고 구매할지 않할지 선택하시면 됩니다.

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시험 번호/코드: JN0-360
시험 이름: Juniper (Juniper Networks Certified Internet Specialist (JNCIS-SP))
당신이 구입하기 전에 시도
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100% 합격율 보장
Q&A: 252 문항
업데이트: 2013-09-29

인재가 넘치는 IT업계에서 자기의 자리를 지켜나가려면 학력보다 능력이 더욱 중요합니다.고객님의 능력을 증명해주는 수단은 국제적으로 승인받은 IT인증자격증이 아니겠습니까? Juniper인증 JN0-360시험이 어렵다고 하여 두려워 하지 마세요. IT자격증을 취득하려는 분들의 곁에는ITExamDump가 있습니다. ITExamDump의Juniper인증 JN0-360시험준비를 하시고 시험패스하여 자격증을 취득하세요. 국제승인 자격증이라 고객님의 경쟁율을 업그레이드 시켜드립니다.

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button
Referring to the network illustrated in the exhibit, how does router A reach destinations in area 49.2222?
A.Router A will use the routes from area 49.2222; it learns from router B
B.Router A will see the attached bit from router B and create a default route
C.Router A must have a default route manually configured
D.Router A will receive a default route in the IS-IS update from router B
Answer: B

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NO.2 You have been asked to define a default gateway for traffic leaving a router. This route should use
interface so-0/0/0 as its next-hop.Which type of route would be suited for this scenario?
A.a static route
B.a generated route
C.a martian route
D.an aggregate route
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which role does the router ID (RID) have in the BGP route selection process?
A.The router ID is evaluated immediately after MED to determine route preference
B.The router ID is evaluated last in the route selection process
C.The router ID is evaluated after the cluster length and a lower router ID is chosen
D.The router ID is evaluated after analyzing the IGP metric cost
Answer: C

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NO.4 You have been asked to configure an IPv6 address for a group of interfaces that could belong on
different routers. If a packet is sent to that address, it should be received by all routers in the group.
Which address type would be suited for these requirements?
A.Unicast
B.Multicast
C.Anycast
D.Broadcast
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which two statements describe differences between IPv4 and IPv6.? (Choose two)
A.IPsec is built into IPv6
B.IPv6 uses a 32-bit (4-byte) address and can support up to 4,294,967,296 addresses
C.IPv4 supports extension headers whereas IPv6 options are integrated into the base
D.IPv6 eliminates the need for NAT
Answer: AD

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button
In the exhibit, OSPF routers R1, R2, R3, and R4 come up, in order, at 1-minute intervals
Which router will be the designated router?.
A.R1
B.R2
C.R3
D.R4
Answer: A

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NO.7 You are logged into a router and have navigated to the [edit routing-options] level of the hierarchy. You
have been asked to create a static route that will use 43 18 7 1 as its primary next-hop and 76 1310 2 as
its secondary next-hop.
Which command correctly configures this setup?
A.set static route 0/0 76.13.10.2 qualified-next-hop 43.18.7.1 pref 10
B.set static route 0/0 next-hop 43.18.7.1 secondary-next-hop 76.13.10.2 preference 10
C.set static route 0/0 next-hop [76.13.10.2 10.10.10.5] pref 10
D.set static route 0/0 next-hop 43.18.7.1 qualified-next-hop 76.13.10.2 preference 10
Answer: D

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NO.8 Click the Exhibit button
Based on the illustration of the VPLS topology shown in the exhibit, which statement is true?
A.PE-C must have a spanning-tree protocol enabled
B.CE-C must have BGP enabled
C.Traffic forwarded from PE-C to PE-A is forwarded on to PE-B
D.Traffic forwarded from PE-C to PE-A is not forwarded on to PE-B
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which IS-IS packet is used to determine the level of an IS-IS neighbor?
A.IIH
B.LSP
C.PSNP
D.CSNP
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which Junos operational mode command is used to verify that load balancing is working as expected?
A.show route all
B.show route extensive
C.show route balancing
D.show route forwarding-table
Answer: D

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NO.11 You have recently implemented a graceful Routing-Engine switchover (GRES) and want to further
reduce down time if a Routing Engine (RE) failure occurs.
Which two features can be configured on this device to reduce its downtime in this situation? (Choose
two)
A.VRRP
B.GR
C.BFD
D.NSR
Answer: B D

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NO.12 Click the Exhibit button
You work for the regional Internet service provider shown in the exhibit You have a partial BGP table and
are receiving a 10 100/16 route from your upstream ISP You have been asked to configure a default route
that can be sent to your downstream customer This route should forward customer traffic toward your
upstream Tier 11SP as long as the 10.100/16 route is present.
What would accomplish this goal?
A.Create and announce an aggregate default route
B.Create and announce a static default route with a next-hop of discard
C.Create and announce a static default route with a next-hop of reject
D.Create and announce a generated default route
E.Create an advertise-map with exist-map
Answer: E

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NO.13 Which two values displayed in the output from the show spanning-tree MSTP configuration command
must match on all switches participating in the same MSTP region? (Choose two)
A.root bridge identifier
B.authentication checksum
C.context identifier
D.configuration digest
Answer: CD

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NO.14 You are logged into a router and have navigated to the (edit routing-options] level of the hierarchy. You
have been asked to create a static route that will use 10.10.10.1 as its primary next-hop and 10.10.10.5
as its secondary next-hop.
Which command correctly configures this scenario?
A.set static route 8/8 10.10.10.1 qualified-next-hop 10.10.10.5 pref 10
B.set static route 8/8 next-hop 10.10.10.1 secondary-next-hop 10.10.10.5 preference 10
C.set static route 8/8 next-hop 10.10.10.1 qualified-next-hop 10.10.10.5 preference 10
D.set static route 8/8 next-hop [10.10.10.1 10.10.10.5] pref 10
Answer: C

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NO.15 What are two valid actions that can be applied to a frame by a Layer 2 firewall filter?
(Choose two)
A.Log
B.loss-priority
C.sample
D.count
Answer: BD

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NO.16 You have configured an IP-IP tunnel between Router A and Router B
Which Junos operational mode command is used to verify that the tunnel interface is up and operational?
A.show chassis tunnel status
B.show tunnel interface
C.show interfaces terse
D.show interfaces tunnel
Answer: C

Juniper   JN0-360   JN0-360   JN0-360

NO.17 Which BGP state denotes a fully operational session?
A.Established
B.Active
C.Operational
D.Connect
Answer: A

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NO.18 Router A is an OSPF router connected to both Area 0 and Area 1 Area 1 has been configured as a stub
area Which two LSA types does Router A suppress from Area 1 ?
A.Router LSA
B.External LSA
C.Summary LSA
D.ASBR Summary LSA
Answer: B D

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NO.19 You must configure an OSPF area that does not accept type 3 link-state advertisements (LSAs) from
area 0 (other than the default route) You have configured your area to be stub, but you still see type 3
LSAs.
What will account for this behavior?
A.You should have configured your area as totally stubby
B.You should have used a not-so-stubby-area
C.You are experiencing a routing loop
D.You have exported routes into OSPF
Answer: A

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NO.20 What is the function of the hop limit field in the IPv6 header?
A.It limits the diameter of the network to 20 hops
B.It sets the number of hops in the network to be equal to the MPLS header time-to-live (TTL)
C.It replaces the time-to-live (TTL) field in IPv4
D.It represents future extensibility to the protocol
Answer: C

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시험 번호/코드: JN0-632
시험 이름: Juniper (Juniper Networks Certified Internet Professional, Security (JNCIP-SEC))
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Q&A: 169 문항
업데이트: 2013-09-29

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NO.1 Which zone is system-defined?
A. security
B. functional
C. junos-global
D. management
Answer: C

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NO.2 You want to allow your device to establish OSPF adjacencies with a neighboring device connected to
interface ge-0/0/3.0. Interface ge-0/0/3.0 is a member of the HR zone.Under which configuration
hierarchy must you permit OSPF traffic?
A. [edit security policies from-zone HR to-zone HR]
B. [edit security zones functional-zone management protocols]
C. [edit security zones protocol-zone HR host-inbound-traffic]
D. [edit security zones security-zone HR host-inbound-traffic protocols]
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which three security concerns can be addressed by a tunnel mode IPsec VPN secured by AH.?
(Choose three.)
A. data integrity
B. data confidentiality
C. data authentication
D. outer IP header confidentiality
E. outer IP header authentication
Answer: ACE

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NO.4 Which security or functional zone name has special significance to the Junos OS?
A. self
B. trust
C. untrust
D. junos-global
Answer: D

Juniper   JN0-632   JN0-632최신덤프   JN0-632시험문제

NO.5 Which two UTM features require a license to be activated? (Choose two.)
A. antispam
B. antivirus (full AV)
C. content filtering
D. Web-filtering redirect
Answer: AB

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NO.6 Which three statements are true regarding IDP? (Choose three.)
A. IDP cannot be used in conjunction with other Junos security features such as SCREEN options, zones,
and security policy.
B. IDP inspects traffic up to the Application Layer.
C. IDP searches the data stream for specific attack patterns.
D. IDP inspects traffic up to the Presentation Layer.
E. IDP can drop packets, close sessions, prevent future sessions, and log attacks for review by network
administrators when an attack is detected.
Answer: BCE

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NO.7 A network administrator has configured source NAT, translating to an address that is on a locally
connected subnet. The administrator sees the translation working, but traffic does not appear to come
back.What is causing the problem?
A. The host needs to open the telnet port.
B. The host needs a route for the translated address.
C. The administrator must use a proxy-arp policy for the translated address.
D. The administrator must use a security policy, which will allow communication between the zones.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Regarding content filtering, what are two pattern lists that can be configured in the Junos OS? (Choose
two.)
A. protocol list
B. MIME
C. block list
D. extension
Answer: BD

Juniper   JN0-632자료   JN0-632

NO.9 A user wants to establish an HTTP session to a server behind an SRX device but is being pointed to
Web page on the SRX device for additional authentication.Which type of user authentication is
configured?
A. pass-through with Web redirect
B. WebAuth with HTTP redirect
C. WebAuth
D. pass-through
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which two statements are true about hierarchical architecture? (Choose two.)
A. You can assign a logical interface to multiple zones.
B. You cannot assign a logical interface to multiple zones.
C. You can assign a logical interface to multiple routing instances.
D. You cannot assign a logical interface to multiple routing instances.
Answer: BD

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NO.11 Which statement describes an ALG?
A. An ALG intercepts and analyzes all traffic, allocates resources, and defines dynamic policies to deny
the traffic.
B. An ALG intercepts and analyzes the specified traffic, allocates resources, and defines dynamic policies
to permit the traffic to pass.
C. An ALG intercepts and analyzes the specified traffic, allocates resources, and defines dynamic policies
to deny the traffic.
D. An ALG intercepts and analyzes all traffic, allocates resources, and defines dynamic policies to permit
the traffic to pass.
Answer:

NO.12 Which configuration keyword ensures that all in-progress sessions are re-evaluated upon committing a
security policy change?
A. policy-rematch
B. policy-evaluate
C. rematch-policy
D. evaluate-policy
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which statement contains the correct parameters for a route-based IPsec VPN?
A. [edit security ipsec]
user@host# show
proposal ike1-proposal {
protocol esp;
authentication-algorithm hmac-md5-96;
encryption-algorithm 3des-cbc;
lifetime-seconds 3200;
}
policy ipsec1-policy {
perfect-forward-secrecy {
keys group2;
}
proposals ike1-proposal;
}
vpn VpnTunnel {
interface ge-0/0/1.0;
ike {
gateway ike1-gateway;
ipsec-policy ipsec1-policy;
}
establish-tunnels immediately;
}
B. [edit security ipsec]
user@host# show
proposal ike1-proposal {
protocol esp;
authentication-algorithm hmac-md5-96;
encryption-algorithm 3des-cbc;
lifetime-seconds 3200;
}
policy ipsec1-policy {
perfect-forward-secrecy {
keys group2;
}
proposals ike1-proposal;
}
vpn VpnTunnel {
interface st0.0;
ike {
gateway ike1-gateway;
ipsec-policy ipsec1-policy;
}
establish-tunnels immediately;
}
C. [edit security ipsec]
user@host# show
proposal ike1-proposal {
protocol esp;
authentication-algorithm hmac-md5-96;
encryption-algorithm 3des-cbc;
lifetime-seconds 3200;
}
policy ipsec1-policy {
perfect-forward-secrecy {
keys group2;
}
proposals ike1-proposal;
}
vpn VpnTunnel {
bind-interface ge-0/0/1.0;
ike {
gateway ike1-gateway;
ipsec-policy ipsec1-policy;
}
establish-tunnels immediately;
}
D. [edit security ipsec]
user@host# show
proposal ike1-proposal {
protocol esp;
authentication-algorithm hmac-md5-96;
encryption-algorithm 3des-cbc;
lifetime-seconds 3200;
}policy ipsec1-policy {
perfect-forward-secrecy {
keys group2;
}
proposals ike1-proposal;
}
vpn VpnTunnel {
bind-interface st0.0;
ike {
gateway ike1-gateway;
ipsec-policy ipsec1-policy;
}
establish-tunnels immediately;
}
Answer: D

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NO.14 You must configure a SCREEN option that would protect your router from a session table flood. Which
configuration meets this requirement?
A. [edit security screen]
user@host# show
ids-option protectFromFlood {
icmp {
ip-sweep threshold 5000;
flood threshold 2000;
}
}
B. [edit security screen]
user@host# show
ids-option protectFromFlood {
tcp {
syn-flood {
attack-threshold 2000;
destination-threshold 2000;
}
}
}
C. [edit security screen]
user@host# show
ids-option protectFromFlood {
udp {
flood threshold 5000;
}
}
D. [edit security screen]
user@host# show
ids-option protectFromFlood {
limit-session {
source-ip-based 1200;
destination-ip-based 1200;
}
}
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which UTM feature requires a license to function?
A. integrated Web filtering
B. local Web filtering
C. redirect Web filtering
D. content filtering
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which two statements regarding external authentication servers for firewall user authentication are
true? (Choose two.)
A. Up to three external authentication server types can be used simultaneously.
B. Only one external authentication server type can be used simultaneously.
C. If the local password database is not configured in the authentication order, and the configured
authentication server is unreachable, authentication is bypassed.
D. If the local password database is not configured in the authentication order, and the configured
authentication server rejects the authentication request, authentication is rejected
Answer: BD

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NO.17 Which two statements regarding symmetric key encryption are true? (Choose two.)
A. The same key is used for encryption and decryption.
B. It is commonly used to create digital certificate signatures.
C. It uses two keys: one for encryption and a different key for decryption.
D. An attacker can decrypt data if the attacker captures the key used for encryption.
Answer: AD

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NO.18 Which type of Web filtering by default builds a cache of server actions associated with each URL it has
checked?
A. Websense Redirect Web filtering
B. integrated Web filtering
C. local Web filtering
D. enhanced Web filtering
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which command do you use to display the status of an antivirus database update?
A. show security utm anti-virus status
B. show security anti-virus database status
C. show security utm anti-virus database
D. show security utm anti-virus update
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which two statements in a source NAT configuration are true regarding addresses, rule-sets, or rules
that overlap? (Choose two.)
A. Addresses used for NAT pools should never overlap.
B. If more than one rule-set matches traffic, the rule-set with the most specific context takes precedence.
C. If traffic matches two rules within the same rule-set, both rules listed in the configuration are applied.
D. Dynamic source NAT rules take precedence over static source NAT rules.
Answer: AB

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시험 번호/코드: JN0-314
시험 이름: Juniper (Junos Pulse Access Control, Specialist (JNCIS-AC))
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NO.1 A user's Junos Pulse client uses 802.1X to access a wired network and is failing to authenticate. You
run a packet capture from the user's PC and notice that immediately after the client machine sends an
EAPoL-start packet, an EAP-failure packet is returned. You review the RADIUS troubleshooting logs on
the MAG Series device and do not see any authentication attempts from the user. Other users on the
same Ethernet switch are successfully authenticating.
Which device is sending the EAP-failure packet to the workstation?
A. The RADIUS server
B. The EAPoL server
C. The workstation's network adapter
D. The Ethernet switch
Answer: D

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NO.2 A customer is trying to decide which 802.1X inner protocol to use on their network. The customer
requires that no passwords be sent across the network in plain text, that the protocol be supported by the
Windows native supplicant, and that the protocol supports password changes at Layer 2.
Which protocol would meet the customer's needs?
A. EAP-TLS
B. EAP-MD5
C. PAP
D. EAP-MSCHAPv2
Answer: D

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NO.3 You want to ensure that users who access the company's protected resources present a client
certificate before they are allowed to sign in.
What should you configure?
A. A certificate authentication policy that allows all users and remembers certificate information while the
user is signed in.
B. A certificate authentication policy that only allows users with a client-side certificate signed by a trusted
client CA to sign in.
C. A certificate role restriction that allows all users and remembers certificate information while the user is
signed in.
D. A certificate role restriction that only allows users with a client-side certificate signed by a trusted client
CA to sign in.
Answer: B

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NO.4 You have a firewall enforcer protecting resources in a data center. A user is experiencing difficulty
connecting to a protected resource.
Which two elements must exist so the user can access the resource? (Choose two.)
A. Resource access policy on the MAG Series device
B. IPsec routing policy on the MAG Series device
C. General traffic policy blocking access through the firewall enforcer
D. Auth table entry on the firewall enforcer
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 You have a Junos Pulse Secure Access Service acting as an IF-MAP client, configured to federate all
user roles to a Junos Pulse Access Control Service acting as an IF-MAP Federation server. A remote user
using Junos Pulse logs in to the Junos Pulse Secure Access Service; the Junos Pulse Secure Access
Service provisions a remote access session for that user.
What happens next?
A. The Junos Pulse Secure Access Service redirects the user to the Junos Pulse Secure Access Service
for authentication
B. The Junos Pulse Access Control Service provisions enforcement points to enable resource access for
that user.
C. The Junos Pulse Secure Access Service publishes user session and role information to the IFMAP
Federation server,
D. The Junos Pulse Secure Access Service provisions enforcement points to enable resource access for
that user.
Answer: C

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NO.6 You navigate to "UAC" > "Infranet Enforcer" > "Auth Table Mapping" in the admin GUI. You see one
policy, which is the unmodified, original default policy.
Which statement is true?
A. Dynamic auth table mapping is not enabled.
B. A successful authentication attempt will result in a new authentication table entry, which will be
delivered only to the Junos enforcer protecting the network from which the user has authenticated.
C. To create a static auth table mapping, you must delete the default policy.
D. The default policy applies only to the factory-default role User.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which three settings are accessible from the serial console menu on a MAG Series device? (Choose
three.)
A. The ping command
B. Factory default reset
C. Personality image
D. License imports
E. Admin login credentials
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.8 What is a type of firewall enforcer supported by the Junos Pulse Access Control Service.?
A. Checkpoint firewall
B. SRX Series device
C. DP sensor
D. MX Series device
Answer: A

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NO.9 What are two ways to access the Junos Pulse Access Control Service? (Choose two.)
A. admin GUI
B. Telnet
C. SSH
D. console
Answer: B,C

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NO.10 What is the function of Host Checker?
A. To allow clientless access to the network
B. To restrict access to protected resources on the network
C. To scan an endpointfor compliance with security policies
D. To push a firewall policy to the endpoint's local firewall application
Answer: B

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NO.11 You are configuring an IPsec routing policy that will be used with a ScreenOS firewall enforcer. What
must you also configure?
A. Source IP policies on the ScreenOS device
B. ScreenOS IPsec policies on the Junos Pulse Access Control Service
C. VPN NAT traversal on the ScreenOS device
D. Source interface policies on the Junos Pulse Access Control Service
Answer: B

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NO.12 You are configuring an active/passive cluster of SRX Series devices as the firewall enforcer on a MAG
Series device. Which statement is true?
A. Multiple Infranet Enforcer instances are created with a single serial number of an SRX Series device
defined in each configuration.
B. A single Infranet Enforcer instance is created with both serial numbers of the clustered SRX Series
devices defined in the configuration.
C. Multiple Infranet Enforcer instances are created with a single IP address of an SRX Series device
defined in each configuration.
D. A single Infranet Enforcer instance is created with the VIP of the clustered SRX Series device defined
in the configuration.
Answer: B

Juniper   JN0-314   JN0-314 pdf

NO.13 A customer wants to create a custom Junos Pulse configuration. Which two are required? (Choose two)
A. Connection set
B. Configuration set
C. Custom installer
D. Component set
Answer: A,D

Juniper   JN0-314   JN0-314시험문제   JN0-314자료

NO.14 A customer has purchased a third-party switch to use for Layer 2 access with their Junos Pulse Access
Control Service. When configuring the switch on the Junos Pulse Access Control Service, the customer
does not find a make/model entry for it.
Which two actions should the customer take to make the switch work with the Junos Pulse Access Control
Service? (Choose two.)
A. Add the switch to the Junos Pulse Access Control Service as a standard RADIUS.
B. Add the switch to the Junos Pulse Access Control Service using the "Any" make/model.
C. Add the switch as a firewall enforcer.
D. Obtain and configure the RADIUS dictionary for the switch and use that vendor listing for the
make/model.
Answer: A,D

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NO.15 Click the Exhibit button.
What is the cause of the error shown in the exhibit?
A. A RADIUS request is being received from a device that is not configured on the RADIUS Client page.
B. A user entered an incorrect password during RADIUS authentication.
C. A RADIUS proxy attempt failed to reach the configured proxy server.
D. The RADIUS shared secret is incorrect.
Answer: A

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시험 이름: Juniper (FWV, Specialist (JNCIS-FWV))
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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
Which two statements are true regarding the route shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. 5.5.5.0/ 24 was configured as a source route with a next-hop IP address of 1.1.1.1 in the trustvr.
B. 5.5.5.0/ 24 was configured as a destination route with a next-hop IP address of 1.1.1.1 in the
trust-vr.
C. 5.5.5.0/ 24 was configured as a SIBR route with a next-hop IP address of 1.1.1.1 in the trust-vr.
D. 5.5.5.0/ 24 was configured as a permanent source route.
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 You want to set up a last resort route and prevent route lookups in either the source-based
routing table or the destination-based routing table.
What should you do?
A. Disable SIBR and create a default route in the trust-vr table using the null interface as the
outgoing interface with a higher metric than other routes.
B. Disable SIBR and create a default route in the trust-vr table using the null interface as the
outgoing interface with a lower metric than other routes.
C. Enable SIBR and create a default route in the SIBR table using the null interface as the outgoing
interface with a higher metric than other routes.
D. Enable SIBR and create a default route in the SIBR table using the null interface as the outgoing
interface with a lower metric than other routes.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which two statements are true about policy-based VPNs as compared to route-based IPsec
VPNs when using ScreenOS devices? (Choose two.)
A. For policy-based IPsec VPNs, you can configure 0.0.0.0/ 0 as the proxy ID on both VPN gateways
regardless of the security policy.
B. For route-based IPsec VPNs, you can configure 0.0.0.0/ 0 as the proxy ID on both VPN gateways
regardless of the security policy.
C. For route-based IPsec VPNs, the proxy ID is derived from the policy.
D. For policy-based IPsec VPNs, the proxy ID is derived from the policy.
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, what is the appropriate VPN monitor status?
A. The VPN is active and the peer is down.
B. The VPN is active and VPN Monitor is not configured for the peer.
C. The VPN is active and the peer is up.
D. The VPN is inactive and VPN Monitor is not configured for the peer.
Answer: B

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NO.5 You have configured integrated Web filtering in the ScreenOS software. A URL appears in the
blacklist, the whitelist, and a user-defined category. Additionally, the device can obtain
categorization information from the SurfControl server.
Which configuration will the device use to determine the action to take for Web requests for the
URL?
A. the blacklist
B. the SurfControl categorization
C. the user-defined category
D. the whitelist
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which two configuration elements are synchronized between the members of an NSRP cluster?
(Choose two.)
A. interface IP addresses
B. hostname
C. track IP configuration
D. static routes
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, you have configured the MIP address 1.1.8.64 on a ScreenOS device.
Which statement is correct?
A. It performs one-to-one address translation and maps 1.1.8.64 to 10.1.10.64.
B. It performs one-to-many address translation and maps 1.1.8.64 to a range from 10.1.10.64 to
10.1.10.71.
C. It performs range address translation and maps 1.1.8.64 to 10.1.10.64, 1.1.8.65 to 10.1.10.65,
etc..
D. It performs address translation using a random IP address from the pool for 10.1.10.64 / 29.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which two statements are true about VPN Monitor on a ScreenOS device? (Choose two.)
A. With a route-based VPN failure, VPN Monitor marks the tunnel interface status as down.
B. With a policy-based VPN failure, VPN Monitor marks the tunnel interface status as down.
C. VPN Monitor uses UDP to detect a VPN connection failure.
D. VPN Monitor uses ICMP to detect a VPN connection failure.
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 HostA is in the Trust zone and has an IP address of. ServerA is a Web server in the DMZ zone
and has an IP address of.
Which three configuration statements are required to allow traffic from HostA to communicate with
ServerA? (Choose three.)
A. ssg5-> set address Trust HostA / 32
B. ssg5-> set policy from DMZ to Trust ANY ANY ANY permit
C. ssg5-> set address DMZ ServerA / 32
D. ssg5-> set policy from Trust to DMZ HostA ServerA HTTP permit
E. ssg5-> set address Trust HostA / 32
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.10 -- Exhibit -set admin name "admin" set admin password "nOsYMqrbAs/McFsJrs6HwcIt3AF6yn"
set admin user "User1" password "nLZwKErINPPCcphC6sFMXrJ" privilege "read-only" set admin port
8080 set admin access attempts 5 set admin access lock-on-failure 5 set admin auth web timeout 10
set admin auth server "Local" -- Exhibit -
User1 wants to create the policy in the ScreenOS device, but is not successful. Referring to the
exhibit, what is the problem?
A. The User1 account has been suspended.
B. User1 does not have any account in this device.
C. User1 logged in to the device with wrong port.
D. User1 does not have the proper permission to create a policy.
Answer: D

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시험 번호/코드: 630-006
시험 이름: ISM (C.P.M. Module 2: Supply Environment)
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Q&A: 285 문항
업데이트: 2013-09-29

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NO.1 When developing a new product with a supplier, which of the following documents protects a company
from information leaks?
A. Copyright
B. Patent
C. Supplier partnership
D. Confidentiality agreement
Answer: D

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NO.2 In a situation where the purchasing and production departments share responsibility for product
fabrication, lead time for delivery of material, work schedules, and selection of sources of supply. Which
responsibilities would be allocated to the production department? (Choose two.)
A. product fabrication
B. lead time for delivery of material
C. work schedules
D. selection of sources of supply
Answer: A, C

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NO.3 Which of the following procedures for dealing with businesses that have social or economical
disadvantages, if a purchasing manager considers: (Choose all that apply)
A. That the staff of such businesses may have had limited exposure to technical contract language
B. That exceptions may be needed to accommodate faster payment of invoices from such businesses
C. That goods or services of lower than usual quality may be accepted from such businesses
D. That such businesses may need information on the bidding process
Answer: A, C, D

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NO.4 Which of the following tools are MOST important for achieving continuous improvements in an
organization's integration with its supplier?
A. Quality inspection at the plant
B. Involvement in product design
C. Suppliers input in forms design
D. Joint examination of costs structure
Answer: B

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NO.5 You work as a buyer at KillTest .com. A piece of capital equipment is designed and specified so as to
force the purchasing department into a sole supplier situation. You still want to affect the procurement
process. Which of the following support items from the sole supplier would you negotiate? (Choose all
that apply)
A. Technical documentation, including data sheets, performance specs, maintenance and operating
manuals, supplier-furnished training programs, and full supplier documentation
B. The initial provisioning of high-risk spare parts for start-up and a one-year period thereafter
C. A promise to maintain equipment on an annual basis by the manufacturer or its authorized service
agent
D. A determination of whether equipment or services are taxable or tax-exempt
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.6 You work as a buyer at KillTest .com. You are curious about the disadvantaged ownership of one of the
companies that supply materials for KillTest .com. When, if ever, can you ask the supplier for this
information?
A. At any time
B. Only when the buyer is purposefully seeking a minority supplier
C. Only when authorized by the courts
D. At no time
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which statement about setting negotiating objectives is FALSE?
A. It should be defined with sufficient specificity to permit measurements.
B. It should be established for each issue or condition to be negotiated.
C. They should establish a supplier's strengths and avoid reference to its weaknesses.
D. It should be based on databases derived from cooperative efforts of purchasing,
production, and engineering.
Answer: C

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NO.8 .Which of the following BEST defines negotiations?
A. reaching an agreement through discussion
B. maximizing one's position over one's opponent
C. reaching an agreement through competitive bidding
D. ensuring that the terms and conditions of a contract are met
Answer: A

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NO.9 If a supplier's level of quality was unsatisfactory on past orders and the level of quality on current
orders is critical, which of the following options would be the BEST way to handle the situation?
A. Timely inspection by the buyer's company at the supplier's plant
B. Requiring the supplier to supply extra products to cover rejects
C. Require 100% inspection before the products leave the warehouse of the order by the buyer's
company's quality control department
D. Label "Quality of Material is Critical" on the purchase order
Answer: A

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NO.10 Choose two of the following options that are usually amongst the functions of the material manager of?
(Choose two)
A. Stores and receiving
B. Quality control
C. Traffic management
D. Accounts payable
Answer: A, C

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NO.11 Which software type is BEST applicable when using in the analysis of a competitive bid?
A. Application
B. Interface
C. Scientific
D. Operating system
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following phrases are used to refer to the receipt of a functional acknowledgment after
sending a purchase order via EDI?
A. transmission received B. accepted purchase order
C. valid contract exists D. goods have been shipped
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following approaches focuses on cooperative rather than adversarial relationships with
suppliers?
A. single sourcing
B. cross-functional teams
C. supply base management
D. supplier partnerships
Answer: D

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NO.14 If a purchasing manager is represented by buying an organization in a meeting with a governmental
body. The manager could possibly embark in the following:
A. explaining the organization's new MRP system
B. promoting the business to other participants
C. negotiating for the buying organization
D. discussing the advantages and disadvantages of various types of contractual arrangements
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following options are key actions that senior management should take into account when
establishing a purchasing department?
A. Select a purchasing system
B. Develop list of suppliers
C. Hire qualified buyers
D. Establish a policies authorizing purchasing authority
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following terms is NOT associated with the Internet?
A. Browsers
B. Home pages
C. Web sites
D. Time sharing
Answer: D

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NO.17 With which of the following would purchasing management be MOST concerned in day-to-day
operational control in a manufacturing firm?
A. labor utilization variance
B. materials utilization variance
C. labor cost variance
D. materials cost variance
Answer: D

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NO.18 If a manufacturer establishes all the population needed for a round-bar machining process being 5.76
centimeters, with a standard deviation of 15. The acceptable quality limits are estimated at about 3
standard deviations. On day one, the sample means are taken by the operator, 5.80, 5.46, and 6.20
centimeters. These means indicate if the process is
A. controlled
B. reckless
C. statistically perfect
D. leaning towards the lower side of the mean
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the following factors are causing growth in complexity of much procurements leading to an
increased trend towards:
A. suppliers partnering
B. cross-functional teams
C. risk factor management
D. strategic supplier alliances
Answer: B

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NO.20 With regard to decision-making capability of cross-functional sourcing teams which of the following is
TRUE?
A. Better decisions than individuals.
B. Quick decisions than individuals.
C. Requiring the input of suppliers.
D. Poor substitute for individual decisions.
Answer: A

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시험 번호/코드: BH0-005
시험 이름: ISEB (ISEB Certificate in Software Asset Management Essentials)
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NO.1 What method of metering would be BEST suited to a concurrent license based application?
A.Active
B.Selective
C.Non-selective.
D.Passive.
Answer:A

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NO.2 For reporting purposes which of the following would you NOT expect to be used to derive SAM reports?
A.DSL
B.CMDB
C.OLA.
D.KEDB.
Answer:C

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NO.3 Which of these elements is part of the preparation stage of implementation?
A.Identifying and assessing software risks and creating a risk register
B.Occasionally completing surprise or ad hoc reviews and audits
C.Highlighting any problems and raising the profile of continued non-conformance
D.Continuously emphasise the importance of the SAM process to all ICT and business personnel.
Answer:A

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NO.4 Which of the following BEST describes the objective of the Core Asset Management processes?
A.To maintain information about software assets throughout their lifecycle and to manage the physical
assets related to software
B.To manage all software assets and their licenses.
C.To manage all software and hardware assets
D.To identify and maintain information about all software assets throughout their lifecycle.
Answer:A

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NO.5 There is a need to reduce the number of SAM reports produced. Which of the following is the LEAST
necessary?
A.The number of software related calls to the Service Desk
B.The cost of a site licence for existing software
C.The number of deployed licenses for each item of software
D.The number of new software licenses required.
Answer:A

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NO.1 Which of the following statements are true in relation to component testing?
a) Stubs may be used.
b) May cover resource behaviour (e.g. memory leaks).
c) Tests the interactions between software components.
d) Defects are typically fixed without formally managing these defects.
A. a, c and d
B. a, b and d
C. b, c and d
D. a, b and c
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which statement about combinations of inputs and preconditions is true for a large system?
A. It is easy to test them all in a short time
B. It is not practically possible to test them all
C. It is not possible to test any of them
D. It is essential to test them all in order to do good testing
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following are characteristic of test management tools?
a) They support traceability of tests to source documents.
b) They provide an interface to test execution tools.
c) They help to enforce coding standards.
d) They manipulate databases and files to set up test data.
A. a and c
B. b and c
C. a and b
D. b and d
Answer: C

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NO.4 Given the following state table:
Which of the following represents an INVALID transition (N)?
A. Off fromisplay Channel 1?
B. Channel 2 from Display Channel 1?
C. Stby from Live?
D. Channel 2 from Live?
Answer: A

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NO.5 Given the following decision table:
Which of the following test cases and expected results is VALID?
A. 23 year old in insurance class A Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
B. 51 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 500.
C. 31 year old in insurance class B Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
D. 43 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 1,000
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which one of the following is a characteristic of good testing in any lifecycle model?
A. Each test level has the same test objective.
B. There should be more testing activities than development activities.
C. Test design can only begin when development is complete.
D. Testers should begin to review documents as soon as drafts are available.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Given the following sample of pseudo code:
01.Input number of male rabbits
02 Input number of female rabbits
03 If male rabbits > 0 and female rabbits > 0 then
04 Input Do you want to breed (Yes / No)
05 If breed = No
06 Print deep male and female rabbits apart
07 End if
08 End If.
Which of the following test cases will ensure that statement 6 is executed?
A. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed = Yes
B. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed = No
C. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 2, breed = Yes
D. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 0, breed = No
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following activities should be performed during the selection and implementation of a
testing tool?
A. Determine whether the organisation existing test process needs to change.
B. Conduct a proof of concept.
C. Implement the selected tool on a project behind schedule to save time. d) Identify coaching and
mentoring requirements for the use of the selected tool
D. a, b and c.
Answer: D

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NO.9 A system specification states that a particular field should accept alphabetical characters in either upper
or lower case.
Which of the following test cases is from an INVALID equivalence partition?
A. Feeds
B. F33ds
C. FEEDS
D. fEEDs
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which one of the following is true of software development models?
A. There are always four test levels in the V-model.
B. In a Rapid Application Development (RAD) project, there are four test levels for each iteration.
C. In Agile development models, the number of test levels for an iteration can vary depending on the
project.
D. There must be at least four test levels for any software development model.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which tasks would USUALLY be performed by a test leader and which by the tester?
a) Adapt planning based on test results.
b) Create test specifications.
c) Plan tests.
d) Write or review a test strategy
A. c and d by the test leader; a and b by the tester
B. a and b by the test leader; c and d by the tester.
C. a and d by the test leader; b and c by the tester
D. a, c and d by the test leader; b by the tester.
Answer: D

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NO.12 A system under development contains complex calculations and decision logic, and it is assessed as
high risk because of the relative inexperience of the development team in the application domain. Which
of the following would be the MOST appropriate choice of test design technique for component testing?
A. Decision testing.
B. Statement testing
C. State transition testing
D. Equivalence partitioning
Answer: A

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NO.13 In which activity of the Fundamental Test Process is the test environment set up.
A. Test implementation and execution.
B. Test planning and control
C. Test analysis and design
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Answer: A

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NO.14 The flow graph below shows the logic of a program for which 100% statement coverage and 100%
decision coverage is required on exit from component testing.
The following test cases have been run:
* Test Case 1 covering path A, B, D, G
* Test Case 2 covering path A, B, D, E, F, E, F, E, F, E, G
* Test Case 3 covering path A, C, D, E, F, E, G
Which of the following statements related to coverage is correct?
A. Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is 100%.
B. Statement coverage is less than 100%; decision coverage is 100%.B.Statement coverage is less than
100%; decision coverage is 100%.
C. Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is less than 100%.C.Statement coverage is 100%;
decision coverage is less than 100%.
D. Statement coverage and decision coverage are both less than 100%.D.Statement coverage and
decision coverage are both less than 100%.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Four testers have each submitted an incident report in which each reported a problem with the User
log-on process. User log-on is a critical component of the system. The table below describes the four
defect reports submitted.
Which Tester has reported the incident MOST effectively, considering the information and priority they
have supplied?
A. Tester 3
B. Tester 1
C. Tester 2
D. Tester 4
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following are structure-based techniques?
a) Decision table testing
b) Boundary value analysis
c) Multiple condition coverage
d) Use case testing
e) Decision testing
A. a and c.
B. b and d.
C. b and e.
D. c and e.
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which of the following is an example of a product risk?
A. Software that does not perform its intended functions
B. Failure of a third party
C. Problems in defining the right requirements
D. Skill and staff shortages
Answer: A

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NO.18 Given the following flow chart diagram:
What is the minimum number of test cases required for 100% statement coverage and 100% decision
coverage, respectively?
A. Statement Coverage = 1, Decision Coverage = 3.
B. Statement Coverage = 2, Decision Coverage = 3.
C. Statement Coverage = 2, Decision Coverage = 2.
D. Statement Coverage = 3, Decision Coverage = 3
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following is a purpose of the review kick off activity?
A. Explain the objectives
B. Select the personnel group
C. Document results
D. Define entry and exit criteria
Answer: A

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NO.20 Pair the correct test design techniques (i to v) with the category of techniques (x, y and z):
i) Exploratory Testing
ii) Equivalence Partitioning
iii)Decision Testing
iv)Use Case Testing
v) Condition coverage
x) Specification-based
y) Structure-based
z) Experienced-based
A. x =i and ii; y = iii and v; z = iv.
B. x =i, ii and iv; y = v; z = iii
C. x = ii and iv; y = iii and v; z = i.
D. x = iii and iv; y = v; z = i and ii.
Answer: C

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시험 번호/코드: ISEB-SWT2
시험 이름: ISEB (ISTQB-ISEB Certified Tester Foundation Level)
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Q&A: 117 문항
업데이트: 2013-09-29

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NO.1 When in the lifecycle should testing activities start?
A. As early as possible
B. After the test environment is ready
C. After the requirements have been reviewed
D. Once the code is available to test Answer: A

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NO.2 Given the following sample of pseudo code: 01 Input number of male rabbits 02 Input number of
female rabbits 03 If male rabbits > 0 and female rabbits > 0 then 04 Input Do you want to breed (Yes / No)
05 If breed = No? 06 Print Keep male and female rabbits apart!? 07 End if 08 End If. Which of the
following test cases will ensure that statement ?6?is executed?
A. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed = yes?
B. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed = no?
C. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 2, breed = yes?
D. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 0, breed = no?
Answer: B

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NO.3 A system under development contains complex calculations and decision logic, and it is assessed as
high risk because of the relative inexperience of the development team in the application domain. Which
of the following would be the MOST appropriate choice of test design technique for component testing?
A. Decision testing.
B. Statement testing
C. State transition testing
D. Equivalence partitioning
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which one of the following statements about approaches to test estimation is true?
A. A metricsbased approach is based on data gathered from previous projects. an expertbased approach
uses the knowledge of the owner of the tasks or experts
B. A metricsbased approach is based on creating a workbreakdown structure first. an expertbased
approach is based on input from estimation experts
C. A metricsbased approach is based on data gathered from previous projects. an expertbased approach
is based on a workbreakdown structure
D. A metricsbased approach is based on an analysis of the specification documents. an expertbased
approach is based on the opinion of the most experienced tester in the organisation
Answer: A

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NO.5 During which activity of the Fundamental Test Process test process do you review the test basis?
A. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
B. Test implementation and execution
C. Test analysis and design
D. Test planning and control
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following are the typical defects found by static analysis tools?
a. Variables that are never used.
b. Security vulnerabilities.
c. Poor performance.
d. Unreachable code.
e. Business processes not followed.
A. b, c and d are true. a and e are false
B. a is true. b, c, d and e are false
C. c, d and e are true. a and b are false
D. a, b and d are true. c and e are false
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following BEST describes a datadriven approach to the use of test execution tools?
A. Monitoring response times when the system contains a specified amount of data
B. Manipulation of databases and files to create test data
C. Using a generic script that reads test input data from a file
D. Recording test scripts and playing them back
Answer: C

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NO.8 A system requires 100% decision coverage at component testing for all modules. The following module
has been tested with a single test case.
The test case follows the path A, B, D, E, F, G. What level of decision coverage has been achieved?
A. 100%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 90%
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following is a MAJOR task of evaluating exit criteria and reporting?
A. Writing a test summary report for stakeholders
B. Logging the outcome of test execution
C. Repeating test activities as a result of action taken for each discrepancy.
D. Evaluating testability of the requirements and system
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following statements is GENERALLY true of testing?
a. Testing can show the presence of defects.
b. Testing reduces the probability of uncovered defects.
c. Testing can show that a previously present defect has been removed.
d. Testing can prove that software is defect free.
A. a, b and c
B. a, b and d
C. a, c and d
D. b, c and d Answer: A

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NO.11 Which tasks would USUALLY be performed by a test leader and which by the tester?
a. Adapt planning based on test results.
b. Create test specifications.
c. Plan tests.
d. Write or review a test strategy
A. c and d by the test leader. a and b by the tester
B. a and b by the test leader. c and d by the tester.
C. a and d by the test leader. b and c by the tester
D. a, c and d by the test leader. b by the tester.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following are characteristics of good testing in any life cycle model? A. Every
development activity has a corresponding test activity.
b. Testers review development documents early.
c. There are separate levels for component and system integration test.
d. Each test level has objectives specific to that level.
e. Each test level is based on the same test basis.
A. a, d and e
B. b, c and e
C. a, c and d
D. a, b and d
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following statements are true in relation to component testing?
a. Stubs may be used.
b. May cover resource behaviour (e.g. memory leaks).
c. Tests the interactions between software components.
d. Defects are typically fixed without formally managing these defects.
A. a, c and d
B. a, b and d
C. b, c and d
D. a, b and c
Answer: B

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NO.14 How is the scope of maintenance testing assessed?
A. Scope is related to the risk, size of the changes and size of the system under test
B. Scope is defined by the size and type of system being changed
C. Scope is defined by the size and type of system being changed
D. Scope is related to the number of system users affected by the change.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which ADDITIONAL test level could be introduced into a standard Vmodel after system testing?
A. System Integration Testing
B. Acceptance Testing
C. Regression Testing
D. Component Integration Testing
Answer: A

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